New CA community property question

[bharath]

I'm confused. I understand that upon divorce, a property held in joint form is treated as CP, but upon death, it continues its character as JT. What if there is no divorcr or dissolution and the marriage is void from the beginning, say because one of the spouses had a preexisting prior marriage that had not been annulled, what becomes of the property. I think it's a quasi-marital property, but how is it divided - as CP? subject to equal division rule? What if the spouse in good faith solely contributed his/her separate property to the acquisition of the jointly tiled property? Please help.